设数列an的前n项和为sn,已知a1=a(a不等于3),
来源:学生作业帮助网 编辑:作业帮 时间:2024/11/11 06:38:42
因为:(5n-8)Sn+1-(5n+2)Sn=-20n-8...(1)所以:(5(n+1)-8)Sn+2-(5(n+1)+2)Sn+1=-20(n+1)-8即:(5n-3)Sn+2-(5n+7)Sn+
(Ⅰ)因为a1=S1,2a1=S1+2,所以a1=2,S1=2,由2an=Sn+2n知:2an+1=Sn+1+2n+1=an+1+Sn+2n+1,得an+1=sn+2n+1①,则a2=S1+22=2+
(1)由已知有:2a1=4096得a1=2048,又an+sn=4096,an+1+Sn+1=4096,两式相减得an+1=an/2,所以an是以1/2为公比的等比数列,故an=2048*(1/2)^
∵Sn=n-an,∴a(n+1)=S(n+1)-S(n)=(n+1)-a(n+1)-n+a(n)=1+a(n)-a(n+1);∴2a(n+1)=1+a(n);∴2a(n+1)-2=1+a(n)-2,即
∵数列{an}的前n项和为Sn=43an-13×2n+1+23(n=1,2,3…),∴当n=1时,a1=S1=43a1−13×22+23,解得a1=2.当n≥2时,an=Sn-Sn-1=43an-13
题目打完啊!,浪费资源
解题思路:分析与答案如下,如有疑问请添加讨论,谢谢!点击可放大解题过程:最终答案:略
2^(n+1)-2^n=2*2^n-2^n=2^nb*an-2^n=(b-1)Sn,b*a(n+1)-2^(n+1)=(b-1)S(n+1)两式相减(左-左=右-右):[b*a(n+1)-2^(n+1
答:1设an,bn的公差分别为d1,d2,Sn=na1+n(n-1)d1/2,Tn=nb1+n(n-1)d2/2,令S(n+3)=(n+3)a1+(n+3)(n+2)d1/2=Tn=nb1+n(n-1
设数列{an}的前n项和为Sn,Sn=a1(3n−1)2(对于所有n≥1),则a4=S4-S3=a1(81−1)2−a1(27−1)2=27a1,且a4=54,则a1=2故答案为2
Sn+1=4an+2Sn=4a(n-1)+2相减得Sn+1-Sn=4an+2-4a(n-1)-2an+1=4an-4a(n-1)an+1-2an=2(an-2an-1)bn=2bn-1(2)求数列{a
/>n≥2时,an=Sn/n+2(n-1)Sn=nan-2n(n-1)S(n-1)=(n-1)an-2(n-1)(n-2)Sn-S(n-1)=an=nan-2n(n-1)-(n-1)an+2(n-1)
S(n+1)=Sn+a(n+1)=10Sn+10S(n+1)+10/9=10*(Sn+10/9)Sn+10/9成等比数列,q=10S1+10/9=10+10/9=100/9Sn+10/9=10*(n-
a1=1a2=s2-a1=2-1=1a3=s3-a1-a2=4-1-1=2a4=s4-a1-a2-a3=6-1-1-2=2a5=s5-a1-a2-a3-a4=8-1-1-2-2=2a6=s6-a1-a
根据题意得,数列a1,a2,…,a500的“理想数”为s1+s2+…+s500500=2004,即s1+s2+…+s500=2004×500;∴数列2,a1,a2,…,a500的“理想数”为:2+(s
(1)当n=1时,T1=2S1-1因为T1=S1=a1,所以a1=2a1-1,求得a1=1(2)当n≥2时,Sn=Tn-Tn-1=2Sn-n2-[2Sn-1-(n-1)2]=2Sn-2Sn-1-2n+
(1)∵an+Sn=4096,∴a1+S1=4096,a1=2048.当n≥2时,an=Sn-Sn-1=(4096-an)-(4096-an-1)=an-1-an∴anan−1=12an=2048(1
因为(n,Snn)在y=3x-2的图象上,所以将(n,Snn)代入到函数y=3x-2中得到:Snn=3n−2,即{S}_{n}=n(3n-2),则an=Sn-Sn-1=n(3n-2)-(n-1)[3(
An+1=1/3Sn3An+1=Sn(1)3An=Sn-1(2)(1)-(2)得3An+1=4An(n大于等于2),所以An是以A2为首项q=4/3的等比数列A2=1/3A1,所以A2等于1/3An=
解题思路:考查数列的通项,考查等差数列的证明,考查数列的求和,考查存在性问题的探究,考查分离参数法的运用解题过程: